February '06 Questions for Ask The Expert Panel

Question 1 : Barry Kalman (C Flight)

This deal came up in a practice session.

Partner    AQJ9    94         QJ9   KQJ2

Me          8543    AJ7532   KT    7

Questions:

1. As dealer should partner open 1N?

2. If partner opens 1N and RHO passes should I bid 2C (Stayman),

2D (Jacoby transfer) or 4D (Texas transfer)?

3. If I bid 2C and partner bids 2S what is my next bid?

4. If I bid 2D and partner bids 2H what is my next bid?

5. Without looking at the opponents cards what contract would you like

to reach with these cards?

Panel's Responses

Ken Bland

1. Yes

2. Stayman if partner bids 2D bid 4D's Texas Transfer. If partner bids hearts or spades bid game in that strain.

3. Game

4. Game

5. Ten tricks maybe in spades

Spade finesse 3/2 distribution of suit in opponents hands

Ten tricks less likely in hearts. KQ hearts on side and spade finesse.

Tom Kniest

1.  Automatic strong NT opening
2.  Stayman for me, but I also play Smolen which allows me all the benefits of Jacoby transfers.  If partner responds spades, I bid a game.  If he responds hearts, I splinter in clubs, and bid 4H over a 4D cuebid.  If he responds 2D denying a major, I bid 3S which says I have at least 5 hearts and 4 spades. Partner will bid 4H with 3 and 3NT without 3.  With the example hand, I would then bid 4D, which is a transfer to 4H.  This convention allows for all game going hands with 4 of one major and 5 or more of another. It also gets the play into partner's hand like Jacoby does.
3.  Answered above
4.  Answered above
5.  I'd want to play 4S - more control over the hand.   

Roger Lord (This is a "Challenge The Champs" problem !)

1. Sure -- why not ?

2. I am torn between 2 clubs and 4 diamonds

3. After your 2 clubs and partner's 2 spades, you could pass (double dummy), or raise to 3 spades (conservative), or jump to 4 spades (normal). There is another possibility, a conventional bid of 3 hearts to show four spades and leave room for a 3 NT contract.

4. An initial response of 2 diamonds is not reasonable, because a subsequent leap to 4 hearts would be a slam invitation (whereas a direct jump over 1 notrump to 4 diamonds commands partner to say 4 hearts, which would be passed).

5. For IMPS, 3 NT. For Matchpoints, one spade (or, realistically, some spade partial).

Tom Oppenheimer

I would definitely open 1 no trump. I do not Stayman these hands. With a good 6 card major and weak four card major, I transfer at the 4 level to play. The only exception is when I have slam interest.

Nancy Popkin

Yes, dealer should open 1N. I would bid 2C and when partner responds 2S, I would bid 4S. I only have 8 points, but I have great playing potential. I would rather be in 4H at the table, but only from my side. If spades break 3-2 and hearts break 3-2, I have a good chance to make this contract because the opponents would have to defend perfectly to beat this contract if the spade king is offsides. If they don't cash their ace of diamonds and then the ace of clubs I have a chance to steal the club or throw the diamonds on the clubs. They can't see my hand so they don't know that I have a chance to throw these losers. Unfortunately, with modern bidding methods, I cannot get to 4 hearts from my side. That being the case, at matchpoints, I would rather be in 3 spades because game depends on the king being onsides (a 50% chance). At imps I would want to be in game, either in hearts or spades.

Ed Schultz

1. Y

2. 2C (Stayman)

3. 4S

4. Should bid Stayman, not transfer. Most play that if you transfer and bid 4M, it is a slam try, although it is superior to play that Texas is a slam try.

5. 4S. I would Stayman and if partner bid 2D, I would bid 3H (or 3S if playing Smolen)

Karen Walker

Partner should open 1NT, and holding a 6-4 major-suit hand with an ace and king, I would want to be in game. With decent hearts and such anemic spades, I would choose the Texas transfer to 4H. In general, the weaker your hand, the better it will be to make your long suit trumps (a 6-2 or 6-3 heart fit rather than a 4-4 spade fit). The reason is that if you play in spades, your hand has so few outside entries that it may be difficult to establish your heart suit.

Obviously, that doesn't work well on this particular deal because partner is so loaded in spades and so soft everywhere else. Looking at both hands, I would want to be in 4S, even though the odds are probably against it, all it needs is a 3-2 spade break with the king onside, plus some normal breaks in the side suits. Make just a minor change in partner's hand, though (move a club to the heart suit, or give him AQxx of spades and 109 of hearts, for example), and I would rather be in 4H.

So for this deal, I guess I would look a lot smarter if I claimed I would use Stayman to get to 4S... and I'd would probably look like a genius if I argued you should stop in 3S. I wouldn't do either of those at the table, though, so honesty -- and a minus score -- prevail here.

En Xie

1. One trump opening is normal if you play 1NT shows 15 to 17 HCP.

2.   4D is a slight overbid but not unreasonable. 2D followed by 3H would be a better bid, especially in the MP games. Both 2D and 4D bids hide your spade

  suit from partner. Therefore, it's highly unlikely your side will find a spade fit. To use Stayman with these kind of hands, you need to discuss with your partners the meanings of your 2H/S, 3H/S, and 4D/H rebids if opener rebids 2D. The down side to bidding 2C is that you would have a hard time to describing your hand if partner rebid 2D.

3. I would bid 4S for sure in IMP games. I still prefer 4S bid in MP games,

but I would live with it if partner holds the hand and bids 3S.

4. I would bid 3H to show 6Hs and invitational value.

5. The chances for making 4H/S are less than 50%. There are good chances to

  make 3H/S but it's not guaranteed. So, in MP games, I'd like our side to

  stay at 2S (the best) or 2H (2nd best) if I have a choice.

Question 2 : Jay Shah (C Flight)

What should the response of a 1 NT opener holding both majors be to a Stayman bid ? Why ? I have heard it both ways - go up the ladder or bid spade first.

Panel's Responses

Ken Bland

Up the line give partner a chance to invite in spades with 8-9 pts

ie: 1N-P-2C P

2H-P- 2S

Tom Kniest

I normally respond 2H; if partner doesn't have hearts, but has 4S, he just bids 2S which shows a hand invitational to 2NT which contains four spades.  If he has a game going hand, he bids 3NT, and I correct to 4S with four of them.  If he just bids 2NT over 2H, then he denies four spades and has a balanced invitation. This is pretty standard among experts.   

Roger Lord

Two hearts. The primary advantage occurs when responder has invitational values with one 4-card major. When opener bids 2 hearts, responder, holding fewer than 4 hearts, can say 2 spades (invitational with 4 spades), over which opener can pass or raise spades or bid 2 notrump or 3 notrump. Instead, if opener first bids 2 spades, a 2 heart contract can no longer be reached, and (if opener has fewer than 4 spades) it will be harder to figure out whether to play 3 hearts or game.

Tom Oppenheimer

Bid hearts first. Many of us play that after a 2 heart response, a bid of 2

spades shows four spades and invitational values. You would lose this bid.

Nancy Popkin

Most players bid up the line, mainly because the responder can pass 2 hearts with a weak hand, whereas if the partner bids 2 spades and the responder has hearts, we would have to get to 2NT or 3 hearts. Plus many players do not play 2NT as invitational anymore. Therefore, with only 4 spades, I would bid 2C, then if partner bid 2H, I would then bid 2S to show only 4 spades and invitational values.

Ed Schultz

Most play that with both you bid hearts first. Some systems work better bidding hearts first. My preference is to bid the one I like. I assume partner has both majors, decide which one I would like as trumps, and bid it. Most importantly, you and your partner should agree on what you do with both.

Karen Walker

Bid the cheaper suit (hearts). The specific benefits will depend on the rest of your agreements (whether or not 2C promised a 4-card major, the meaning of a 2S rebid by responder, etc.). With just about any notrump system, though, the up-the-line approach saves space and gives responder a better picture of your hand. If you rebid 2S over 2C, for example, responder will always know that you do not have 4 hearts.

En Xie

I prefer to bid hearts first. I don't see any serious problem with both ways if you play standard Stayman (2C shows invitational hand with at least a 4-card major or a weak hand with 4-4-5-0). For players who play 2C doesn't promise a major, bidding 2H is much better than 2S. Because they would miss the H fit if opener doesn't go up the ladder.

Question 3 : Thomas O'Reilly-Pol (Flight C)

Playing against Juniors, and with a new Junior partner, I picked up in third seat (spots approximate) Red vs. White at pairs:
   A Q J 3
   K
    A Q 5 4 2
   Q 8 3

Partner opened 1C, RHO overcalled 1D.  I trap-passed.  Partner bid 1H.  I thought this odd, as he probably has severe D shortage, and only 4 hearts.  I had been debating whether or not to pass a reopening double.  Somewhat confused, I bid 1 spade, which ended the auction.  Partner tabled:
   K 8 4
  A Q J 2
  8
  A K J 10 2

Needless to say +230 (5-1 spade break) was not a good score, but somehow not a bottom.  I realize this is an ugly bidding sequence by both of us, but I'm still not sure what an intelligent sequence would look like after this ultra light interference (shakes ironic fist at Juniors;).  Do you have any general suggestions?  Also, what would a good sequence look like if RHO had overcalled 2NT (he was 5-5 in the red)?  Any difference at IMPs or if the colors change?

Ken Bland

Thomas, your side has 14 tricks, when your partner opened with one spade you must cue bid 2D to start the auction moving toward slam. Thomas, even had your partner reopened with a double red vs white, diamonds can't be set enough (7NT vul 2220)

Tom Kniest

While I love to trap, the vulnerability is wrong on this hand - you have to beat them four at the one level to get more than your red game - highly unlikely if RHO has real diamonds, because your spots are so poor.  If he doesn't have real diamonds, then they'll probably find hearts.
  
That having been said, your partner has a classic reopening double; when he doesn't double, he's saying that he has a distributional hand that he doesn't want to defend a low level contract with, or he has the wrong pattern, such as a tripleton diamond and shortness elsewhere.
   
Since partner didn't reopen with a double, I would bid 3NT to let him know that you were trapping.  With his big hand, he has a natural raise to 4NT (quantitative) and you have a really easy raise to 6NT.  I don't know how to get to seven after the opponents have psyched.

If RHO had overcalled 2NT, then I would be much more interested in a penalty; still, we have a red game, if partner can handle hearts, so I would show a diamond stopper, if that was my agreement over unusual NTs.  However, most experts don't show stoppers in this type of auction; 3C would be competitive in clubs, 3D would be forcing in clubs; 3H would be forcing in spades, and 3S would be competitive in spades.  Since I have a potentially good defensive hand, and would be expecting bad breaks in the black suits, I think I would start with a double.  Interestingly enough, we can beat 3H 8 tricks, but 3D only 6 tricks, thanks to declarer's diamond spots.  2000! against 3HX - that will teach them to interfere in our auctions!   

Roger Lord

As much as I like to double the opponents for penalties, I have to give up that pleasure on a probable slam hand. I'll start with a direct 1 spade. Opener can say 2 hearts. I'll raise to three clubs (which is forcing after opener's reverse), followed by Roman Keycard Blackwood, locating all the keycards, and a king-asking bid, pinpointing the spade king, and finally 7 notrump.

A 2 notrump overcall makes it tougher. Say you double first. With favorable vulnerability, you can double 3 diamonds for 1700. With any other vulnerability, you're better off cuebidding and making up your own sequence of forcing bids.

Tom Oppenheimer

Vulnerability is not great for you to defend when you surely have a game.

Even so, do not punish partner for not reopening with a double. You need

to help partner to do the right thing. Do not make a bid he can pass.

Start out with a 2 diamond cue bid to hear more about his hand.

Nancy Popkin

I would start with a negative double first so as to not lose the spade suit. Since we are vulnerable, I would rather get to 3NT than to defend 1D. By the way, partner should have reopened with a double in case you were trap-passing. Against 2NT, I would double saying to partner that I can penalize one or both of the opponent's suits. No difference at imps or with a color change.

Ed Schultz

You are vulnerable. The possibility exists that you won't defeat a one diamond contract enough to compensate for your game or slam. I don't like the diamond spots. It is also an underbid and lazy to just jump to 3NT, as you might miss a slam in several strains. I would personally start with a cue-bid of 2D, most likely ending in at least 3NT, but in this case, if partner's extras can be diagnosed, getting to a slam.

Karen Walker

Recklessness can be found in all ages of bridge players. I know plenty of old guys who also make these garbage overcalls J The key is to use it against them, which you had the chance to do here.

The problem began with the pass of 1D. Your diamonds are long, but not strong enough to justify the decision to defend, and the rest of your hand is so strong that you rate to do much better on offense. At this vulnerability, you would have to beat 1D four tricks just to make up for your game (and if you can actually take that many tricks on defense, you probably have a slam).

Once you do pass, though, partner has a perfect hand to reopen with a double. He would reopen with 1H only if his hand were not suitable for defense (6-5 distribution, for example) or if he had a bare minimum without adequate support for one of the unbid suits.

Your only force after the 1H bid is a 2D cuebid. Your 1S bid could have been made with a very weak hand that has no support for either of partner's suits.

If RHO overcalls 2NT, a popular defense is, unusual vs. unusual". With this set of responses, you assume that the two suits he showed are "theirs" and the other two suits (the suit partner opened and the unbid suit) are "yours". As responder, you have two cuebids available in their suits to describe your length in your suits. The meanings are:

  . Cuebid of overcaller's LOWER-ranking suit (1C-2NT- 3D ) = Length in our lower-ranking suit. In this auction, the cuebid would show club support and at least invitational strength.

  . Cuebid of overcaller's HIGHER-ranking suit (1C-2NT- 3H ) = Length in our higher-ranking suit. In this auction, the higher-ranking suit is the "unbid" suit, so your cuebid shows 5+ spades and game values.

En Xie

A) I prefer to bid instead of making a trap-pass here. Opponents would easily get 3-4 Ds plus a side suit trick if our side doesn't have a slam. +500 would be a very bad score for us. Furthermore, with your hand and partner's opening bid, your side has great potential for slam. So, I would bid 1S over RHO's 1D.

B) With your partner's hand, I would double 1D and wouldn't pass your 1S. The hand is too good to bid 1H and too good to pass after partner bids 1S.

C) I would double to start with if RHO bids 2NT.